Free FPGEE sample questions
Eight practice questions from all four FPGEE content areas. Pick your answer, then open the explanation. These are original study questions, not real exam questions.
1. A wound culture grows gram-positive cocci in clusters that are catalase-positive and coagulase-positive. The most likely organism is:
- A. Staphylococcus epidermidis
- B. Enterococcus faecalis
- C. Streptococcus pyogenes
- D. Staphylococcus aureus
Show answer and explanation
Use the standard identification steps. Gram-positive cocci in clusters are staphylococci (streptococci grow in chains or pairs). The catalase test separates staphylococci (positive) from streptococci and enterococci (negative). The coagulase test then separates Staphylococcus aureus (positive) from coagulase-negative staphylococci such as S. epidermidis and S. saprophyticus.
S. aureus causes skin and soft tissue infections, bacteremia, endocarditis, osteomyelitis and toxin-mediated disease. Knowing whether it is MSSA or MRSA decides therapy: an anti-staphylococcal beta-lactam (cefazolin, nafcillin, oxacillin) for MSSA, and vancomycin, daptomycin or linezolid for MRSA.
Why the other choices are wrong
- AStaphylococcus epidermidis: S. epidermidis is a staphylococcus but is coagulase-negative; it typically infects catheters and prosthetic devices.
- BEnterococcus faecalis: Enterococcus faecalis is catalase-negative and grows in pairs or short chains.
- CStreptococcus pyogenes: S. pyogenes grows in chains and is catalase-negative.
2. Which immunoglobulin class crosses the placenta to provide passive immunity to the fetus?
- A. IgM
- B. IgA
- C. IgE
- D. IgG
Show answer and explanation
IgG is the only antibody class actively transported across the placenta. Transport uses the neonatal Fc receptor (FcRn) on placental syncytiotrophoblast cells, and it increases sharply in the third trimester. Maternal IgG protects the newborn for roughly the first 6 months of life.
This explains several practice points: Tdap and RSV vaccines given during pregnancy protect the newborn through maternal IgG; preterm infants have less maternal antibody; and maternal IgG autoantibodies (Graves TSH-receptor antibodies, anti-Rh antibodies) can cross and affect the fetus.
Why the other choices are wrong
- AIgM: IgM is a large pentamer and cannot cross the placenta; IgM in a newborn suggests the fetus was infected in utero.
- BIgA: IgA reaches the infant through breast milk (secretory IgA), not across the placenta.
- CIgE: IgE is not transported across the placenta.
3. A 70-kg patient needs a target plasma concentration of 15 mg/L. The drug has a volume of distribution of 0.7 L/kg and is given IV. What loading dose is needed?
- A. 315 mg
- B. 525 mg
- C. 735 mg
- D. 1050 mg
Show answer and explanation
A loading dose fills the volume of distribution to the target concentration at once: Loading dose = (Vd × Cp target) ÷ F (F = 1 for IV).
Step 1, total Vd: 0.7 L/kg × 70 kg = 49 L. Step 2, loading dose: 49 L × 15 mg/L = 735 mg.
The loading dose depends on Vd, not clearance; the maintenance dose depends on clearance (maintenance rate = CL × Cpss ÷ F). If an oral form with F = 0.5 were used, the loading dose would double to 1470 mg.
Why the other choices are wrong
- A315 mg: 315 mg corresponds to a Vd of 0.3 L/kg, not 0.7 L/kg.
- B525 mg: 525 mg corresponds to a Vd of 0.5 L/kg.
- D1050 mg: 1050 mg treats the Vd as 1 L/kg (70 kg × 15 mg/L), ignoring the 0.7 factor.
4. A weak acid has a pKa of 4.4. In gastric fluid at pH 1.4, what is the ratio of ionized to un-ionized drug?
- A. 1 : 1000
- B. 1 : 100
- C. 1000 : 1
- D. 1 : 1
Show answer and explanation
Use the Henderson–Hasselbalch equation for a weak acid: pH = pKa + log([ionized A⁻] / [un-ionized HA]). So log(ionized/un-ionized) = pH − pKa = 1.4 − 4.4 = −3, and the ratio = 10⁻³, i.e., 1 : 1000.
Rule of thumb: an acid in an acidic environment stays mostly un-ionized ("like in like"), and the un-ionized form is lipid-soluble and crosses membranes. A base in an acidic environment is mostly ionized. Each pH unit away from the pKa changes the ratio tenfold. Note that even for weak acids, most absorption happens in the small intestine because of its huge surface area.
Why the other choices are wrong
- B1 : 100: 1 : 100 would correspond to a 2-unit difference between pH and pKa, not 3.
- C1000 : 1: 1000 : 1 is the inverse; it would be the answer for a weak base under these conditions.
- D1 : 1: A 1 : 1 ratio happens only when pH equals pKa.
5. A new test gives 90 true positives, 10 false negatives, 80 true negatives and 20 false positives. What is its specificity?
- A. 80%
- B. 81.8%
- C. 85%
- D. 90%
Show answer and explanation
Build the 2 × 2 table: TP = 90, FN = 10 (disease present); TN = 80, FP = 20 (disease absent).
Specificity = TN ÷ (TN + FP) = 80 ÷ 100 = 80%. It is the share of healthy people correctly identified as negative.
The other values from the same table: sensitivity = TP ÷ (TP + FN) = 90%; positive predictive value = TP ÷ (TP + FP) = 90 ÷ 110 = 81.8%; negative predictive value = TN ÷ (TN + FN) = 80 ÷ 90 = 88.9%; accuracy = (TP + TN) ÷ total = 170 ÷ 200 = 85%. Memory aid: SpPIn (a highly Specific test, when Positive, rules In) and SnNOut (a highly Sensitive test, when Negative, rules Out).
Why the other choices are wrong
- B81.8%: 81.8% is the positive predictive value.
- C85%: 85% is overall accuracy.
- D90%: 90% is sensitivity.
6. In a trial, 20% of the control group and 15% of the treatment group had a stroke. What is the number needed to treat (NNT)?
- A. 5
- B. 15
- C. 20
- D. 25
Show answer and explanation
Absolute risk reduction (ARR) = control event rate − treatment event rate = 20% − 15% = 5% = 0.05. Number needed to treat (NNT) = 1 ÷ ARR = 1 ÷ 0.05 = 20.
So 20 patients must be treated for the study period to prevent one stroke. Round NNT up to the next whole number. For comparison, the relative risk reduction (RRR) = ARR ÷ control rate = 5 ÷ 20 = 25%, and the relative risk = 15 ÷ 20 = 0.75. RRR can make a small benefit look large, which is why NNT is useful for clinical decisions.
Why the other choices are wrong
- A5: 5 is the ARR expressed as a percentage, not the NNT.
- B15: 15 is the treatment-group event rate.
- D25: 25 is the relative risk reduction expressed as a percentage.
7. A 78-year-old man weighing 56 kg is treated with a drug-eluting stent for non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction. He had a transient ischemic attack 2 years ago. He will take aspirin 81 mg daily. Which P2Y12 inhibitor should be avoided?
- A. Clopidogrel
- B. Ticagrelor
- C. All P2Y12 inhibitors should be avoided
- D. Prasugrel
Show answer and explanation
Prasugrel has a boxed warning: it is contraindicated in patients with a history of stroke or TIA because of a higher risk of intracranial bleeding, and it is generally not recommended in patients 75 years or older (except high-risk situations such as diabetes or prior MI). Body weight below 60 kg also raises bleeding risk (the maintenance dose is reduced to 5 mg in that case). This patient has all three risk factors.
Ticagrelor (with aspirin no higher than 100 mg daily) or clopidogrel are the options. Dual antiplatelet therapy (DAPT) after ACS is usually continued for 12 months, with shorter courses considered for high bleeding risk. Ticagrelor side effects include dyspnea and bradyarrhythmias; clopidogrel effectiveness is reduced in CYP2C19 poor metabolizers.
Why the other choices are wrong
- AClopidogrel: Clopidogrel is acceptable here, especially given his age, low weight and prior TIA.
- BTicagrelor: Ticagrelor is acceptable with low-dose aspirin; prior TIA is not a contraindication (prior intracranial hemorrhage is).
- CAll P2Y12 inhibitors should be avoided: He needs dual antiplatelet therapy after a stent; only prasugrel must be avoided.
8. An 80-year-old woman (weight 52 kg, CrCl 32 mL/min) with HFrEF and atrial fibrillation takes digoxin 0.25 mg daily. She reports nausea, loss of appetite and seeing yellowish halos around lights. Her serum digoxin level is 2.4 ng/mL and potassium is 3.3 mEq/L. Which statement is most accurate?
- A. She should take an extra dose to improve her heart failure symptoms
- B. Digoxin toxicity is unlikely because hypokalemia protects against it
- C. Her symptoms are unrelated to digoxin, because the level is within the therapeutic range for heart failure
- D. This is digoxin toxicity; low potassium adds risk, and the dose is too high for her kidneys
Show answer and explanation
For heart failure, the target serum digoxin level is about 0.5–0.9 ng/mL; higher levels add toxicity without benefit. Her level of 2.4 ng/mL is high, and her symptoms are classic toxicity: GI (nausea, anorexia), neurologic (confusion, fatigue) and visual (yellow-green tint, halos). Arrhythmias are the dangerous effects: frequent PVCs, bigeminy, AV block, and paroxysmal atrial tachycardia with block.
Digoxin is renally cleared, so older adults with low CrCl and low body weight need lower doses (often 0.125 mg daily or less). Hypokalemia, hypomagnesemia and hypercalcemia increase toxicity, because potassium competes with digoxin at the Na/K-ATPase. Interacting drugs that raise digoxin levels: amiodarone, verapamil, dronedarone, clarithromycin. Life-threatening toxicity is treated with digoxin immune fab (DigiFab).
Why the other choices are wrong
- AShe should take an extra dose to improve her heart failure symptoms: Extra doses would worsen toxicity and could cause fatal arrhythmias.
- BDigoxin toxicity is unlikely because hypokalemia protects against it: Hypokalemia increases digoxin toxicity; it does not protect against it.
- CHer symptoms are unrelated to digoxin, because the level is within the therapeutic range for heart failure: A level of 2.4 ng/mL is well above the heart failure target of 0.5–0.9 ng/mL.
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